(no subject)
Jun. 30th, 2015 04:51 pmIf I were to go back in time, looking for a turning point that eventually led SCOTUS to the legalization of same-sex marriages, my candidate #1 would be the invention of the Pill. Before the Pill, a union between a man and a woman, barring health problems, had to result in having babies. Young people just wanted to have lots of sex, but it required a recognized commitment, which the institute of marriage traditionally provided.
After the Pill, a man and a woman could live happily ever after while just having fun instead of babies. Therefore, children stopped being the natural outcome of having regular sex. Thus, getting married without kids became a valid goal for a union between two consenting adults. If not having children in marriage is ok, then why not allow gays to marry? They don't even need to use the Pill for contraception!
After the Pill, a man and a woman could live happily ever after while just having fun instead of babies. Therefore, children stopped being the natural outcome of having regular sex. Thus, getting married without kids became a valid goal for a union between two consenting adults. If not having children in marriage is ok, then why not allow gays to marry? They don't even need to use the Pill for contraception!